Đề thi thử đại học môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án. VnDoc.com xin giới thiệu đến các bạn Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2018 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án được sưu tầm và đăng tải với những dạng bài được tạo sát với cấu trúc của Bộ giáo dục rất hữu ích cho các bạn ôn tập, yên tâm bước vào kì thi quan trọng Đề ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh . Mời các bạn vào tham khảo Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh năm 2018 có đáp án - Số 32 do VnDoc.com sưu tầm và đăng tải nhằm giúp các bạn có thêm tài liệu hữu ích để bổ sung vào quỹ ôn tập hiện có, chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kì thi quan trọng đang đến rất gần. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400 families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China. đề thi thử THPT quốc gia 2022 môn tiếng anh trường chuyên lam sơn tỉnh thanh hóa có đáp án Bạn đang xem bản rút gọn của tài liệu. Xem và tải ngay bản đầy đủ của tài liệu tại đây (240.33 KB, 8 trang ) 7.Hướng dẫn giải chi tiết đề thi THPT quốc gia 2018 môn Anh mã 401; 8.Đề thi Tiếng Anh THPT quốc gia 2018 mã đề 401 … – MarvelVietnam; 9.Đề thi môn Tiếng anh THPT Quốc gia 2018 chính thức từ Bộ GD&ĐT; 10.Tổng Hợp đề Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Anh Chính Thức Các Năm! Related posts: . Cập nhật đề thi thử Tiếng Anh cho học sinh lớp 12 ôn thi kì thi THPT Quốc Gia, Thích Tiếng Anh chia sẻ “Đề thi tham khảo THPT Quốc Gia năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh chính thức“. Đây là đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh chính thức của bộ GD-ĐT cho kì thi THPT Quốc Gia năm 2018. Đề thi nhìn chung vẫn giữ ổn định như đề thi năm 2017 nhưng tăng thêm số lượng câu hỏi phân hóa học the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. legal B. diverse C. polite D. complete Question 2. A. interview B. compliment C. sacrifice D. represent Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. mood B. flood C. spoon D. moon Question 4. A. listens B. reviews C. protects D. enjoys Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5. If he were younger, he a professional running competition now. A. will join B. had joined C. would have joined D. would join Question 6. The children to bed before their parents came home from work. A. were all going B. had all gone C. had all been going D. have all gone Question 7. Linda refused in the musical performance because she was sick. A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. to participating Question 8. There has been little rain in this area for months, ? A. has it B. has there C. hasn’t it D. hasn’t there Question 9. David was deported on account of his expired visa. He it renewed. A. must have had B. should have had C. needn’t have had D. mightn’t have had Question 10. The proposal by the environmentalists to grow more trees has received approval from the council. A. which suggested B. be suggested C. suggested D. was suggested Question 11. Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop their . A. creative B. creativity C. create D. creatively Question 12. Violent films may have a negative on children. A. opinion B. influence C. dependence D. decision Question 13. A good leader should not be conservative, but rather to new ideas. A. receptive B. acceptable C. permissive D. applicable Question 14. individuals are those who share the same hobbies, interests, or points of view. A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded Question 15. The child has no problem reciting the poem; he has it to memory. A. devoted B. added C. committed D. admitted Question 16. After several injuries and failures, things have eventually _ for Todd when he reached the final round of the tournament. A. looked up B. gone on C. taken up D. turned on Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following questions. Question 17. The first few days at university can be very daunting, but with determination and positive attitude, freshmen will soon fit in with the new environment. A. interesting B. memorable C. serious D. depressing Question 18. Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area. A. do harm to B. set fire to C. give rise to D. make way for Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following questions. Question 19. In this writing test, candidates will not be penalized for minor mechanical mistakes. A. punished B. rewarded C. motivated D. discouraged Question 20. After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury the hatchet. A. become enemies B. become friends C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 21. John and Mary are talking about what to do after class. John “ ” Mary “Yes, I’d love to.” A. Do you often have time for a drink after class? B. Would you like to have a drink after class? C. Do you often go out for a drink after class? D. Would you like tea or coffee after class? Question 22. Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future. Paul “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.” Daisy “_ ” A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. There’s no doubt about that. C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. I am sorry to hear that. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. GOOD FRIENDS Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to mental well-being. A recent study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help to 23 our lives. The study concentrated 24 the social environment, general health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than 70 years. The participants were asked how much contact they had with friends, children, relatives and acquaintances. Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life 25 to a far greater extent than frequent contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even after these friends had moved away to another city and was independent of factors such as socio- economic status, health, and way of life. According to scientists, the ability to have relationships with people to 26 one is important has a positive effect on physical and mental health. Stress and tendency towards depression are reduced, and behaviours that are damaging to health, such as smoking and drinking, occur less frequently. 27 , our support networks, in times of calamity in particular, can raise our moods and feelings of self-worth and offer helpful strategies for dealing with difficult personal challenges. Source Academic Vocabulary in Use by Michael McCarthy and Felicity O’Dell Question 23. A. prolong B. lengthen C. stretch D. expand Question 24. A. in B. with C. on D. at Question 25. A. expectation B. insurance C. expectancy D. assurance Question 26. A. who B. whom C. what D. that Question 27. A. Otherwise B. For example C. Moreover D. However Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is, the greater delight he will find in reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are very difficult and that if philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure. But this is not true. The mathematician finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as the school boy in an adventure story. For both, it is a play of the imagination, a mental recreation and exercise. The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all kinds of reading. But different types of books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of popularity is novel-reading. Novels contain pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations, and give us an opportunity of escaping into a new world very much like our world and yet different from it. Here we seem to live a new life, and the experience of this new life gives us a thrill of pleasure. Next in order of popularity are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These tell us tales of places we have not seen and of great men in whom we are interested. Some of these books are as wonderful as novels, and they have an added value that they are true. Such books give us knowledge, and we also find immense pleasure in knowing details of lands we have not seen and of great men we have only heard of. Reading is one of the greatest enjoyments of life. To book-lovers, nothing is more fascinating than a favorite book. And, the ordinary educated man who is interested and absorbed in his daily occupation wants to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of books for recreation and refreshment. Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss? Source A. Different types of books B. Different kinds of reading C. Reading as an exercise for the brain D. Reading as a pleasurable activity Question 29. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true? Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a Philosophers and scientists do not read for A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in Question 30. The word “derived” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _ . A. differed B. established C. bought D. obtained Question 31. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to . A. a new life B. our world C. an opportunity D. a thrill of pleasure Question 32. The word “immense” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to . A. great B. limited C. personal D. controlled Question 33. According to the passage, travel books, biographies and memoirs . A. are wonderful novels B. tell stories of well-known places C. are less popular than novels D. are more valuable than novels Question 34. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the most fascinating to book- lovers? A. A daily occupation B. An ordinary educated man C. The wonderland D. A favorite book Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. The system of higher education had its origin in Europe in the Middle Ages, when the first universities were established. In modern times, the nature of higher education around the world, to some extent, has been determined by the models of influential countries such as France and Germany. Both France and Germany have systems of higher education that are basically administered by state agencies. Entrance requirements for students are also similar in both countries. In France, an examination called the baccalauréat is given at the end of secondary education. Higher education in France is free and open to all students who have passed this baccalauréat. Success in this examination allows students to continue their higher education for another three or four years until they have attained the first university degree called a licence in France. Basic differences, however, distinguish these two countries’ systems. French educational districts, called académies, are under the direction of a rector, an appointee of the national government who is also in charge of universities in each district. The uniformity in curriculum throughout the country leaves each university with little to distinguish itself. Hence, many students prefer to go to Paris, where there are better accommodations and more cultural amenities for them. Another difference is the existence in France of prestigious higher educational institutions known as grandes écoles, which provide advanced professional and technical training. Most of these schools are not affiliated with the universities, although they too recruit their students by giving competitive examinations to candidates. The grandes écoles provide rigorous training in all branches of applied science and technology, and their diplomas have a somewhat higher standing than the ordinary licence. In Germany, the regional universities have autonomy in determining their curriculum under the direction of rectors elected from within. Students in Germany change universities according to their interests and the strengths of each university. In fact, it is a custom for students to attend two, three, or even four different universities in the course of their undergraduate studies, and the majority of professors at a particular university may have taught in four or five others. This high degree of mobility means that schemes of study and examination are marked by a freedom and individuality unknown in France. France and Germany have greatly influenced higher education systems around the world. The French, either through colonial influence or the work of missionaries, introduced many aspects of their system in other countries. The German were the first to stress the importance of universities as research facilities, and they also created a sense of them as emblems of a national mind. Source Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss? The nature of education around the world in modern times Systems of higher education in France and Germany The origin of higher education system in Europe The influence of France and Germany on educational systems of other countries Question 36. The word “uniformity” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to . A. proximity B. discrepancy C. similarity D. uniqueness Question 37. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to . A. schools B. universities C. examinations D. branches Question 38. Which of the following about grandes écoles in France is NOT stated in paragraph 3? Most of them have no connection with They have a reputation for advanced professional and technical Their degrees are better recognized than those provided by They offer better accommodations and facilities than Question 39. According to the passage, a regional university rector in Germany is elected by . A. the staff of the university B. the national government officials C. the regional government officials D. the staff of other universities Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what makes it possible for students in Germany to attend different universities during their undergraduate studies? The university staff have become far more mobile and The university’s training programs offer greater flexibility and freedom of University tuition fees are kept at an affordable level for all Entry requirements to universities in Germany are made less Question 41. The word “emblems” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to . A. representatives B. directions C. structures D. delegates Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? Studying in France and Germany is a good choice for people of all ages and It normally takes longer to complete a university course in France than in Universities in Germany can govern themselves more effectively than those in The level of decentralization of higher education is greater in Germany than in Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43. Every member of the class were invited to the party by the form teacher. A B C D Question 44. Historically, it was the 3rd Asian Games in Japan that tennis, volleyball, table tennis A B C and hockey were added. D Question 45. Though formally close friends, they have now been estranged from each other due to A B C some regrettable misunderstandings. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. Harry no longer smokes a lot. A. Harry now smokes a B. Harry used to smoke a lot. C. Harry didn’t use to smoke a D. Harry rarely smoked a lot. Question 47. “I’ll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport,” he said to me. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the Question 48. People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of private cars. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the downtown The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. The young girl has great experience of nursing. She has worked as a hospital volunteer for years. Before she worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of nursing. Much as she has worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of Having worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of nursing. With great experience of nursing, the young girl has worked as a hospital volunteer for Question 50. Peter told us about his leaving the school. He did it on his arrival at the meeting. Only after his leaving the school did Peter inform us of his arrival at the Not until Peter told us that he would leave the school did he arrive at the Hardly had Peter informed us about his leaving the school when he arrived at the No sooner had Peter arrived at the meeting than he told us about his leaving the Thích Tiếng Anh chia sẻ “Đề thi tham khảo THPT Quốc Gia năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh chính thức“ Tuyển chọn "30 Đề thi thử Tiếng Anh THPT Quốc gia 2018" có đáp án và giải thích chi tiết bao gồm 360 trang giúp các em học sinh tự ôn luyện, rèn kỹ năng giải nhanh các bài tập trắc nghiệm tiếng anh, đồng thời nâng cao vốn từ vựng, khả năng đọc hiểu, kỹ năng trọng âm để hoàn thành tốt cho kỳ thi chính thức sắp CLICK LINK DOWNLOAD EBOOK PDF TẠI ĐÂY2. CLICK LINK DOWNLOAD BẢN WORD TẠI ĐÂY Dành cho các thầy cô Vậy là một mùa thi nữa sắp tới. Để các bạn học sinh THPT có thể đạt thành tích tốt trong kì thi THPT Quốc Gia môn tiếng Anh này, Ebomb đã tổng hợp lại bộ FULL 24 mã đề năm 2019. Dưới đây là đề thi mã 401, gửi các bạn tham khảo Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 1 Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games. - Silas "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?" - Salah "______. We can't afford such a big event." A. You can say that again B. I can't agree with you more C. Yes, you're right D. No, I don't think so Question 2 Laura is telling Bob about her exam results. - Laura "______" - Bob "That's great. Congratulations!" A. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow. B. I've passed the exam with an A. C. I'll get the exam results tomorrow. D. I didn't do well in the exam. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following questions. Question 3 Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important sophisticated discoveries in different fields. A. accessible B. confusing C. effective D. advanced Question 4 It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information. disseminating A. classifying B. distributing C. adopting D. inventing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following questions. Question 5 With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for feer of getting into financial difficulties. A. dress in loose clothes B. spend money freely C. save on daily expenses D. put on tighter belts Question 6 Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is moungting as the government has created mounting favourable conditions for them to develop their business. A. peaking B. varying C. decreasing D. rising Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 7 A. delays . B begins C. attracts . D believes Question 8 A. head . B bean . C meal . D meat Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 9 A. sympathy B. poverty C. equipment D. character Question 10 A. intend B. install C. follow D. decide Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 11 It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his working hard during the term. A. comes B. gets C. stands D. lays Question 12 Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday. A. to going B. going C. go D. to go Question 13 The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those receiving conventional medicine. A. treated B. having treated C. treating D. who treated Question 14 Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health. A. would recover . B has recovered . C had recovered . D was recovering Question 15 Several measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among university graduates. A. pose B. admit C. address D. create Question 16 There is no excuse for your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday. A. mightn't have finished B. should have finished C. needn't have finished D. must have finished Question 17 The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the audience. A. whole-hearted B. light-hearted C. soft-hearted D. kind-hearted Question 18 It is advisable that the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job. A. permissive B. noticeable C. acceptable D. observant Question 19 Mary rarely uses social networks, ______? A. isn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. is she Question 20 Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers. A. impress . B impressively . C impression . D impressive Question 21 If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem. A. would help B. helps C. will help D. has helped Question 22 You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures. A. left out B. put off C. switched off D. turned on Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 23 It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency. A. concerns B. parents skills C. incidents D. juvenile delinquency. Question 24 It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have their talents and effords recognised. A. the ASEAN Para Games B. disabled C. an opportunity D. recognised Question 25 Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers. A. is B. by C. parents D. peers Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26 I find it useful to join the sports club. A. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. B. It is useful for me to join the sports club. C. I used to join the sports club. D. I never like joining the sports club. Question 27 It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives. A. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods. B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives. C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives. D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods. Question 28 "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella. A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her. C. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her. . Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29 Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her. A. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life. B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life. C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family meant to her. D. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her. Question 30 Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before getting a job. A. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job. B. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education. C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job. D. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that the difference ______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms ______ occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon. Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue ______ it is not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government has ______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is ______ 35 to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient. Adapted from by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" Question 31 A. on . B with . C in . D out Question 32 A. when B. which C. what D. where Question 33 A. or B. for C. and D. but Question 34 A. pledged B. committed C. confessed D. required Question 35 A. home B. house C. land D. place Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you want from the job. Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company. The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job. Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable." However, when you go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable. Adapted from by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen "Select Readings - Intermediate" Question 36 What is the passage mainly about? A. Advice on how to find a good job B. Things to avoid during a job interview C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application D. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application Question 37 According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______. A. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview B. get further information about the company C. advertise a product to attract more customers D. present what he/she wants from the job Question 38 The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______. it A. the letter of application B. an opportunity C. your work D. the résumé Question 39 The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______. explicitly A. clearly B. shortly C. slightly D. quickly Question 40 According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application? A. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer. B. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job. C. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style. D. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé. Question 41 The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. broach A. avoid B. investigate C. introduce D. understand Question 42 According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______. A. accept any salary offered B. negotiate working conditions C. mention their expected salary range D. talk about the company's budget Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their academic achievement. It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children's conduct," says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems." Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him," says Johnston. Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as popular as ever. Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming effect on them. Adapted from by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern "Ready for Advanced" Question 43 Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? A. Having School Dogs Pros and Cons B. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School C. School Dogs Useful Classroom Assistants D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend Question 44 The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. adulation A. excessive admiration B. deserved attention C. considerable controversy D. unrealistic expectation Question 45 The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______. a handful A. difficult to control B. reluctant to explore C. inclined to disagree D. impossible to understand Question 46 Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet? A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. Better recovery from illness C. A greater desire to influence others D. Long-term changes in conduct Question 47 The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______. one A. a school dog B. a craze C. a Mulberry staff member D. a primary school Question 48 According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush? A. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students B. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload D. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy Question 49 Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5? A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons. B. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention. C. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting. D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere. Question 50 Which of the following is implied in the passage? A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals. B. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School. C. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will benefit their students. D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their message across to young people. Ngoài ra, hãy tham khảo các mã đề con lại qua file PDF dưới đây Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 401 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 402 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 403 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 404 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 405 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 406 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 407 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 408 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 409 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 410 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 411 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 412 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 413 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 414 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 415 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 416 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 417 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 418 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 419 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 420 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 421 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 422 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 423 Đề thi tiếng Anh THPT 2019 mã đề 424 Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh thpt quốc gia 2019 tất cả các mã đề Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh thpt quốc gia 2019 mã 401 chi tiết Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh thpt quốc gia 2019 mã 402 chi tiết Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh thpt quốc gia 2019 mã 403 chi tiết Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh thpt quốc gia 2019 mã 404 chi tiết _________________________________ Xem thêm ĐỀ THI TIẾNG ANH THPT QUỐC GIA 2019 Chúc các bạn học tốt! - Thứ ba, 26/06/2018 1607 GMT+7Theo dõi MTĐT trênĐề thi, đáp án tất cả các mã đề thi tiếng Anh THPT quốc gia 2018. Cập nhật đáp án, gợi ý đáp án tất cả các mã đề thi tiếng Anh THPT quốc gia 2018. Chiều 26/6, các thí sinh sẽ tiếp tục kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2018 với môn thi Ngoại ngữ gồm tiếng Anh, tiếng Nga, tiếng Nhật, Pháp bằng hình thức trắc nghiệm. Môn Ngoại ngữ có thời gian làm bài 60 phút. Thời gian phát đề cho thí sinh là 14h20. Các thí sinh sẽ có 10 phút để đọc và kiểm tra nội dung đề, phát hiện sai sót nếu có của đề. Thời gian làm bài thi môn Ngoại ngữ được tính từ 14h30 và kết thúc lúc 15h30 cùng ngày. Kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2018 chủ yếu phục vụ cho việc xét tốt nghiệp. Vì vậy, những kiến thức cơ bản vẫn chiếm tầm 70% số lượng câu hỏi. Theo đề minh họa môn tiếng Anh 2018 của Bộ GD-ĐT, kiến thức chính là chương trình lớp 12 80%, thêm kiến thức lớp 11 20%. Trong số 50 câu trắc nghiệm thì có 2 bài đọc hiểu, mỗi bài đọc hiểu gồm có khoảng từ 3 - 4 đoạn văn ngắn theo các chủ đề trong các đơn vị bài học của chương trình SGK. Hai bài đọc này sẽ chiếm 30% điểm của toàn bài. Ngoài ra, còn có 35 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm khác ngữ âm- chọn đáp án - đồng nghĩa – trái nghĩa - kết hợp câu - viết lại câu - đục lỗ - ngôn ngữ giao tiếp. Vậy làm thế nào để phân bố thời gian hợp lí cho toàn bài cũng như từng dạng câu hỏi. Đề thi môn tiếng Anh THPT quốc gia năm 2018 gồm các mã đề 401, 402, 403, 404, 405, 406, 407, 408, 409, 410, 411, 412, 413, 414, 415, 416, 417, 417, 419, 420, 421, 422, 423, 424. Trước đó, buổi sáng cùng ngày, thí sinh làm bài thi tổ hợp môn Khoa học tự nhiên Vật lý, Hóa học, Sinh học. Mỗi đề thi gồm 40 câu hỏi, trong thời gian 50 án chính thức bài thi môn tiếng Anh kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2018 sẽ được Môi trường và Đô thị Việt Nam điện tử cập nhật nhanh và chính xác nhất ngay khi được Bộ GD-ĐT công bố. Trong thời gian chờ đợi, các thí sinh và phụ huynh có thể tham khảo đáp án gợi ý bài thi môn tiếng Anh THPT quốc gia 2018 trên Môi trường và Đô thị. Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 401 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 401 1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. C 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. A 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. C Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 402 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 402 1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. D 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. A 41. D 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. D 47. C 48. 49. A 50. B Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 403 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 403 Câu 1 - B Câu 11 - B Câu 21 - C Câu 31 - B Câu 41 - D Câu 2 - A Câu 12 - B Câu 22 - C Câu 32 - D Câu 42 - A Câu 3 - C Câu 13 - D Câu 23 - B Câu 33 - D Câu 43 - A Câu 4 - A Câu 14 - C Câu 24 -D Câu 34 - A Câu 44 - A Câu 5 - D Câu 15 - A Câu 25 - B Câu 35 - B Câu 45 -D Câu 6 - B Câu 16 - B Câu 26 - A Câu 36 - A Câu 46 - A Câu 7 - D Câu 17 - B Câu 27 - A Câu 37 - A Câu 47 - A Câu 8 - A Câu 18 - B Câu 28 - C Câu 38 - D Câu 48 - A Câu 9 - B Câu 19 - B Câu 29 - B Câu 39 - A Câu 49 - D Câu 10 - C Câu 20 - A Câu 30 - B Câu 40 - D Câu 50 - D Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 404 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 404 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. B 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. B 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. C Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 405 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 405 26. D 27. B Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 406 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 406 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 407 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 407 41. 43. D 46. A 50. C Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 408 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 408 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 409 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 409 43. C 44. C 45. B Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 410 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 410 1 D 2 A 3 C 4 A 5 B 6 B 7 B 8 A 9 C 10 D 11 C 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 D 21 A 22 A 23 D 24 C 25 C 26 B 27 B 28 A 29 B 30 B 31 C 32 A 33 C 34 C 35 A 36 B 37 D 38 D 39 D 40 B 41 C 42 D 43 C 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 48 D 49 D 50 C Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 411 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 411 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 412 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 412 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 413 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 413 16. C Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 414 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 414 50. B Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 415 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 415 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 416 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 416 1 A 2 D 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 A 9 D 10 C 11 C 12 A 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 B 17 A 18 D 19 C 20 C 21 D 22 C 23 A 24 C 25 A 26 A 27 C 28 A 29 A 30 C 31 C 32 D 33 A 34 A 35 A 36 D 37 A 38 D 39 D 40 D 41 D 42 D 43 D 44 C 45 A 46 47 B 48 B 49 D 50 D Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 417 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 417 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 418 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 418 33. 35. 38. D 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 419 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 419 38. C Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 420 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 420 37. 38. D 44. D 50. D Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 421 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 421 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 422 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 422 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 423 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 423 Đề thi, đáp án môn tiếng Anh mã đề 424 thi THPT Quốc gia 2018Mã đề 424 49. B Dưới đây là đề thi minh họa môn tiếng Anh kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia 2018 chính thức từ bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo Đề 401 Kỳ thi THPT 2018 Thí sinh 'khoanh bừa' vì đề Toán khóGợi ý đáp án môn Sinh học THPT quốc gia 2018 tất cả các mã đềĐáp án đề thi THPT Quốc gia môn Hóa học năm 2018Đáp án đề thi THPT Quốc gia môn Vật lý năm 2018Cùng chuyên mụcĐáp án, Đề thi môn Tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2023 tất cả mã đềCác em cùng tham khảo đáp án môn tiếng Anh thi vào lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 tất cả các mã 001, 002, 003, 004, 005, 006, 007, 008, 009, 010, 011, 012, 013, 014, 015, 016, 017, 018, 019, 020, 021, 022, 023, mớiBắt tạm giam Phó Giám đốc Sở Ngoại vụ tỉnh Thái NguyênCơ quan An ninh điều tra Bộ Công an ra các quyết định khởi tố bị can, lệnh bắt tạm giam, lệnh khám xét chỗ ở và nơi làm việc đối với Trần Tùng, sinh 1978, Phó Giám đốc Sở Ngoại vụ tỉnh Thái Nguyên, về tội "Nhận hối lộ", quy định tại Điều 354 Bộ luật HSHiểm hoạ từ cốc giấy khi đựng đồ nóngNhững chiếc cốc giấy dùng một lần tưởng chừng thân thiện với môi trường hơn so với cốc nhựa, trên thực tế, chúng không có lợi cho sức khỏe do bên trong cũng được tráng nhựa. Giới thiệu đề thi thử thpt quốc gia 2018 môn tiếng anh Đề thi thử thpt quôc gia môn tiếng anh từ các trường, trường chuyên, không chuyên trển cả nước, từ giáo viên nổi tiếng, từ các đầu sách, trung tâm giảng dạy uy tín. 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24 đề thi tiếng anh thpt quốc gia 2018